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#1 2010-06-01 01:02:59

patschwieterman
Administrator
From: California
Registered: 2005-10-25
Posts: 1680

"moreways" for "mores"

In high school I had one of those excellent teachers who seemed to know everything and never dumbed down his vocabulary for us. One day he explained the concepts of “folkways” and “mores,” but I assumed a structural analogy between the two words and heard them as “folkways and moreways.” It made sense to me – “moreways” referred to the cultural practices employed by more of the people in a given culture. It took me a few years to realize my error. Remembering that made me wonder whether anyone else had ventured down the same logical pathways – and in fact a few people have. This is reasonably rare; I’ve provided below all but one of the instances Google led me to. (It looked like an excellent example, but in chasing it down I found myself on a pedophilia website – no links for those guys. It amazes me how often really interesting reshapings turn up on dubious or despicable sites – I’ve felt slimed a number of times in my years of eggcorn-hunting.) Examples:

(a cluster of folkways and moreways centered upon fulfilling an important social task)
http://business.baylor.edu/Allen_Seward … ecture.htm

Gentle Reader, learn your literature, your philosophy, your history, your religions, folkways and moreways, and read this book,and those of you who ‘just don’t get it’... read it again, then realize the quality of the weave of human soul and mind in this magnus opus of Koontz.
http://www.audible.com/adbl/site/produc … eNumber=11

I see an effort to distance oneself from a rich culture to “fit in” the larger mainstream of American folkways and moreways…
http://www.bestandworst.com/v/94155.htm

They Wiped away our Language… Our religion, Our culture, our god, our folk ways, moreways, and our norms as Dr. Khallid put it…
http://afrikanstraighttalk.blogspot.com/

Our roots, folkways, and moreways can be traced to the Cape Fearian Indian Tribes; specifically the (Saponas, Sugar Loaf, Winnebau, Tuscaroras, Cherokees and others tribes) prior to the Native American Diaspora.
http://www.aboriginaloldtownhistoricalsociety.com/

Do we
suppress desires or are we following a
script (one mate/marriage) to conform
to social moreways?
http://www.bestandworst.com/v/89850.htm

There is no such thing as American Culture… America is without any collective social moreways at all.
http://www.godlikeproductions.com/forum … 952799/pg5

Such black people are not denying their identity, but rather indicating the social moreways.
http://www.godlikeproductions.com/bbs/r … te=3932345

Last edited by patschwieterman (2010-06-01 01:04:02)

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#2 2010-06-01 17:51:04

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

I like this one.

If you were looking up “sexual moreways,” I can see how you might end up at some purple sites.


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#3 2010-06-02 13:27:51

David Bird
Eggcornista
From: The Hammer, Ontario
Registered: 2009-07-28
Posts: 1702

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Compelling eggcorn, Pat. It is curious how first eggcornista accounts seem to surface even after many years of contributing to the forum.

The movement away from the inscrutable mores to moreways is sometimes pushed even farther, to return it to its original content. I count the lack of spacing, or the hyphen, as signs that the perps derived moralway as a unit substitution for more.

The forever war
That will give you the truth about their folkways and moralways more than anything else.

The Scarlet Letter critique
Also the Puritan’s folkways and moral-ways during that time period.

Nah, there couldn’t be a roundtripper for “more >> moreway”, could there. The following are all but unaccountable; they must represent an elision of an entire word via a WTF mechanism.

West Ham United signing rumours-
Tevez is OUT OF REACH, deal with it, if he wasn’t he would stay he is out of reach in mores than one, a)... b)... c)...

Fanfic
The fact that she was a glorious No-Life Queen, with so much more potential and strength than ever before, only whetted the desire he had since he first saw her. The only time she had seemed to acknowledge him, he had felt a feirce stinging down his spine, and barely caught the word “bastard” before she walked away. The harmful jolt of power had only made him shiver in mores than one...

But moreways for mores got me thinking. Mistaken impressions of “social mores” rang a bell for me. It was a Thing you read and understood but mispronounced. Not surprisingly. I knew what it meant and that it had nothing to do with the other more, but pronounced it “mor”. How was I to know that it was a word taken directly from Latin, and how that might alter its pronunciation? I’m sympathetic to those who heard it before seeing it, and thought it was a moray. Of course there are no rules for indicating that a word is a loanword. This one is a fairly recent loan (early 20th) and one hopes that an eggcorn mechanism might absorb it more comfortably into the language. French has a similar word—moeurs—that would not be so strange as mores.

There are other words I mispronounced for the same reasons, and I think they are pertinent here. Take segue. I had read this word and absorbed it into my vocabulary as “seeg”. When I heard it pronounced as segway I thought it an embarrassing mispronunciation. If I’m not mistaken, its the only instance of a gue ending that is pronounced “gway” in English. And what are the precedents and signposts for the pronunciation of the past tense segued. I learned only by looking it up that it’s an Italian loanword. An eggcorn sitting dunk. The Language Log from 2005 posted about the complicated eggcornical path of segue to segway (eggcorn) on to segway (trademark) and back as an new eggcorn for segue.

Here’s another. The breastfeeding support group La Leche League presents a real conundrum. I have always pronounced it “La Lesh Leeg”. I understood it as a French borrowing meaning “The Lick League”. This morning it occurred to me that it must in fact be Spanish for milk, la laychay. So if it is La Laychay, why not La Laychay Lay-agway.

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#4 2010-06-02 17:18:27

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

If I’m not mistaken, it’s the only instance of a gue ending that is pronounced “gway” in English.

Ah, David. You should know by now that it isn’t safe to make a general claim about language on this forum (A bit of information I have acquired the hard way, alas.). There is also “mangue,” pronounced MAN-gway. The Mangues are native Nicaraguans.

I count at least five ways that the terminal ”-gue” can be pronounced in English:

segue – gway
dengue – gay
argue – gyoo
tongue – g

There may be compelling reasons that English has become the most commonly spoken international language. Consistency is not one of them.

Last edited by kem (2010-06-06 11:32:01)


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#5 2010-06-03 11:53:32

DavidTuggy
Eggcornista
From: Mexico
Registered: 2007-10-11
Posts: 2752
Website

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Mangue is pronounced Mangway? I am surprised. In Spanish is it not, and certainly not (where I hear it most) in the compounds Otomangue (Spanish) or Otomanguean (English — pronounced OH-tow-MAN-gee-an —hard g). I would have pronounced it like dengue .


*If the human mind were simple enough for us to understand,
we would be too simple-minded to understand it* .

(Possible Corollary: it is, and we are .)

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#6 2010-06-03 14:53:16

patschwieterman
Administrator
From: California
Registered: 2005-10-25
Posts: 1680

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

This forum is probably one of the few places on the web where it isn’t safe to make a claim about the pronunciation of “Mangue.” If I know anyone who’s regularly heard a version of the term spoken, it’s David Tuggy.

I don’t recall having heard the word before, but the usual authorities will allow us to choose pretty much any pronunciation we want. The OED’s entry on “Mangue” gives (I’m translating roughly from the IPA) “g(w)ay,” with the parentheses presumably implying that you can retain or delete that w. But their entry on “Oto-manguean” is more elaborate, giving three pronunciations each in British and NAm varieties. Basically, they allow “gway-uhn,” “gay-uhn,” and “gee-uhn” in that order.

The pronunciation guide in the Wikipedia article on Oto-manguean more or less agrees with David but wasn’t written by him. Interestingly, the guide first went up on Sept 8, 2009 and gave the pronunciation as roughly “0h-toh-mahn-gayn.” Within an hour and a half, another editor replaced it with the current pronunciation, remarking that the earlier version was “half Spanish, half English.” Both editors are apparently linguists. This confirms my impression that most ling articles on Wikipedia are being watched intensely all the time.

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#7 2010-06-03 17:44:22

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Indeed, in Spanish Mangue would rhyme with “gay.” I was going by the OED pronunciation. I’ve never heard it pronounced by an English speaker. And probably never will.

David T an authority on how a Spanish word is pronounced in English? He would be the last person to ask, wouldn’t he? The authorities on traditional English pronunciations of terms derived from other languages are people who do not speak the source languages.

Have you noticed, in this regard, that over the last couple of decades there has been a tendency to change the traditional English pronunciation of Spanish words for Spanish countries to something resembling the Spanish pronunciations? “Nicaragua” is one of these (including the double-barreled “Managua, Nicaragua”). And “Chile” (sounds a bit like shee-lay). “Argentina” (Ar-hen-tee-na). “Mexico” would be an obvious one to nativise, but I don’t sense any trend—I suspect that the traditional English pronunciation has been fixed in cement by its use in elementary and secondary school curricula and by its application to a cuisine. What is strange about this trend is that it doesn’t seem to generalize to other languages, such as the way Chinese, French, and Russian place names are pronounced in English. English newscasters do not say “par-EE” and “frahns.” Even here in Canada most English speakers seem to say “Kwi-beck” or “kwee-beck” for “Quebec.”

Last edited by kem (2010-06-03 21:24:13)


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#8 2010-06-06 00:18:48

patschwieterman
Administrator
From: California
Registered: 2005-10-25
Posts: 1680

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

David T an authority on how a Spanish word is pronounced in English?

Well, neither David nor I set him up as an authority (but I now plan to…).

He would be the last person to ask, wouldn’t he? The authorities on traditional English pronunciations of terms derived from other languages are people who do not speak the source languages.

Sez who? I’m skeptical. A number of lexicographers have been famed for their intimate knowledge of the source-languages they were working with, and I don’t see why that shouldn’t be the case. My conversational Spanish is covered with about a quarter century of rust, but I lived in Mexico for a while, and I never had any problem whatsoever distinguishing between the English and Spanish pronunciations of the same word or phrase. And it’s hard for me to imagine that I would. If I had grown up with both languages, maybe there’d be some cross-over confusion (I’m skeptical even about that), but I acquired most of my Spanish as a late teen, and I’m really quite conscious of the differences between the two.

In fact, I think it’s people who can speak two languages who are most highly aware of the differences in the pronunciation of words shared by both tongues. When I first moved to Southern California, I was a Spanish major, and a number of times people took me to task for my pronunciation of the Silicon Valley town of “Los Gatos.” I say “Loss Gaddis,” not “Lohs Gah-tohs,” because that’s the pronunciation I heard growing up in Northern California. I was well aware that the name means “The Cats” in Spanish, but that didn’t matter—that wasn’t how I’d heard it said. My interlocutors would say things like, “I’m surprised that a Spanish major doesn’t know the correct pronunciation of that town.” And I’d ask them whether they said “Lohs Ahn-heh-less” for Los Angeles or “Sahn Frahn-sees-coh” for San Francisco. And that always ended that discussion. But it amazed me that they had never thought about the possibility that the names of the small, more obscure towns—the ones they’d only seen mentioned in newspaper articles—probably had local, Anglicized pronunciations just like the big towns. But I was, in fact, a Spanish major, and I was quite conscious of the difference. I was a pretty good authority for the local pronunciation of Los Gatos (or San Jose [“Sannozay”], for that matter), and I don’t see why David Tuggy shouldn’t be a good authority for similar terms. [For the record, some Los Gatos locals do in fact use a Hispanicized pronunciation, and that tendency seems to have become more common since the town became the home of many Silicon Valley millionaires. But plenty of old-timers find that version of the name affected.]

And I wonder just who could be the authority on the pronunciation of a word like “Mangue” in English if not people like David. The problem is that there probably isn’t a “traditional” pronunciation of the word. It refers to a language that has been extinct for centuries, and to a people that seems to have been largely assimilated; as far as I can tell, it isn’t used as a term that identifies a well-defined ethnic group in modern-day Nicaragua. So the kinds of people who are talking about the Mangue in English are likely specialists like David—Meso-American linguists, anthropologists, archaeologists, historians—people who can comfortably read a monograph in Spanish, and people who know Spanish orthographic conventions well. If you rule them out as authorities, I doubt you have many potential authorities left.

Furthermore, aren’t you made just a bit suspicious by the OED pronunciation guides for “Mangue” and “Oto-Manguean”? I mean, c’mon—six different pronunciations for “Oto-Manguean,” a term very few Anglophones will ever encounter in speech? What’s going on with that? How exactly did that thing get written? Maybe the OED editors took a poll at a Meso-American linguistics conference. But my guess is that they guessed. I suspect that they were well aware that the term was too obscure to have a single authoritative pronunciation, and they therefore set out to provide a pragmatic guide that would encompass all the reasonable guesses that a reasonably informed English speaker might come up with. That doesn’t say to me that there’s necessarily anyone out there saying “Man-gway.” I’ll bet that “Man-gay” is, at the very least, much more common.

I’d never encountered the words “gangue” and “cangue” before—so thank you for that. But where’d you get those pronunciations? The OED just gives “gang” and “cang” as the pronunciation.

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#9 2010-06-06 04:07:54

DavidTuggy
Eggcornista
From: Mexico
Registered: 2007-10-11
Posts: 2752
Website

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Well, I’ll have to ask some of my colleagues who actually do Otomanguean. I’m only on the periphery of their discussions: Uto-Aztecan’s more my schtick.
.
But I agree with both you and kem, Pat. You’re right that knowing both languages is likely to leave you more rather than less aware of pronunciation differences between them. He’s right that we bilingual types are more likely than pure natives to let our knowledge of the “right” way to pronounce something override what we have heard. I would have a hard time saying Loss Gaddis without shuddering and would probably avoid doing so.
.
One of my favorites is San Juan Capistrano, which I hear(d) pronounced [Sæn Hwan Kæpistrano]. I had fun trying to pronounce it [San Hwæn Kapistræno] instead.


*If the human mind were simple enough for us to understand,
we would be too simple-minded to understand it* .

(Possible Corollary: it is, and we are .)

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#10 2010-06-06 11:31:36

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

The OED just gives “gang” and “cang” as the pronunciation.

Indeed. I have made an error. I’ll remove them from the list. The OED is probably trustworthy on this. So now English is a little less irrational (unless someone can think of another example of -gue as J).

An eloquent plea for the trustworthiness of language savants, Pat. But I think you are focusing on exceptions rather than rules. You and I are not good witnesses for the prosecution when it comes to standard pronunciations. A capable defense lawyer would make mincemeat out of us. To tame a unicorn, look for a virgin.

Case in point: Quebec. You can find a number of web sites stating boldly that “k-beck” is the proper pronunciation of “Quebec.” I pronounce the name of the province this way. But I’m also aware that “kwee-beck” is common, especially here in the west of Canada. I find that I can usually correlate the two pronunciations with the level of the person’s exposure to French (The British-oriented OED, by the way, gives “k-beck” as the third pronunciation.). Again, though, this attempt to find authentic pronunciations only goes so far. I don’t hear English-speaking newscasters saying the word “Montreal” with a French pronunciation.

Two of my favorite city-name localisms are “Staunton” and “Cairo.” The name of the Virginia city of Staunton is pronounced by the locals as “stan-ton.” Cairo, a small city in Nebraska I have traveled through a hundred times, is “care-oh” to the locals, not “kye-roh.” Cairo is named after the Egyptian city—most of the dozen or so street names in the little burg are someone’s idea of Middle Eastern place name: Nile St, Egypt St, Thebes St, Mecca St.

Last edited by kem (2010-06-06 16:24:18)


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#11 2010-06-06 13:28:20

klakritz
Eggcornista
From: Winchester Massachusetts
Registered: 2005-10-25
Posts: 674

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

In my part of the USA, this phenomenon of foreign names taking a new English pronunciation is most apparent with formerly French names- think, e.g., of Detroit and Des Moines. The citizens of Calais, Maine pronounce their town’s name to rhyme with ‘palace.’

But what I find fairly astonishing is that this process works even on the names of individuals. Some years ago, a woman named Joan Benoit won the Boston marathon; she pronounces her name to rhyme with ‘Detroit,’ rather than as ‘Benwha.’ And I’ve met several folks from New Hampshire with the surname ‘Bourgeois’ who answer only to ‘Burgess.’

I’d bet that the Native American derived place names around here- ‘Massachusetts,’ ‘Connecticut,’ etc.- have undergone a similar evolution, but it would take a speaker of the native languages to confirm my hunch.

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#12 2010-06-06 16:21:37

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

But what I find fairly astonishing is that this process works even on the names of individuals.

There is an asymmetry between the correct way to pronounce places and the correct way to pronounce people’s names. Place names seem to work by consensus, with some implicit weighted voting underlying the consensus. Once consensus is reached, low-frequency dissent is ignored: we don’t change the way we pronounce “Detroit” just because our French cousins insist on “de-TRWAH.” But the way a person pronounces his/her own name1 is usually taken as the gold standard, even if everyone else tends to pronounce it in a different way. The names of some famous people, especially those with non-English names, can be exceptions to this rule. Almost no one expects Nietzsche’s name to be pronounced the way he would have said it.

An interesting borderline case in this regard is the name of one of the minor U. S. Presidents. Modern students of U. S. history do not pronounce his name the way he did. Because he is a minor president, his own pronunciation should arguably take precedence over subsequent mispronunciations. Anyone want to take a guess who this unfortunate fellow is?

——————-
1 Dialectic differences are taken into account, of course. I don’t address a fellow named “Chet” as “CHAY-at,” even if he is from Texas.

Last edited by kem (2010-06-06 16:25:13)


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#13 2010-06-07 02:21:42

patschwieterman
Administrator
From: California
Registered: 2005-10-25
Posts: 1680

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Kem wrote:

An eloquent plea for the trustworthiness of language savants, Pat. But I think you are focusing on exceptions rather than rules.

Well, the funny thing is that I have little to argue with in your post after this point—you seem to be making there points more or less similar to what I said in my own post.

I don’t think I’m focusing on exceptions—instead, I believe there’s more than one set of “rules,” at least if what you’re talking about is what kind of term is likely to get a more strongly Anglicized pronunciation. In the case of “Mangue,” I was referring to a specialist term that was introduced into English from Spanish and seems to be maintained in English by people who are likely to have facility in the source language. This isn’t an “exception”—I’d guess there are many thousands of similar terms in the language, and they’ll tend to stay reasonably close to the pronunciation in the source language. Place names, on the other hand, seem to me to have a greater vulnerability to getting either an Anglicized pronunciation or a just plain idiosyncratic local rendering, one that’s maintained by tradition, the forces of group cohesion, a persistent local memory of the name’s unexpected origin, etc. I think bilinguals are more likely to be aware of both sets of terms.

Because he is a minor president, his own pronunciation should arguably take precedence over subsequent mispronunciations. Anyone want to take a guess who this unfortunate fellow is?

Martin van Buren is supposed to have learned English as a second language—his native tongue was Dutch. Since there’s no way “van byoor-in” is the Dutch pronunciation of his name, I’m going with him.

David T. wrote:

One of my favorites is San Juan Capistrano, which I hear(d) pronounced [Sæn Hwan Kæpistrano]. I had fun trying to pronounce it [San Hwæn Kapistræno] instead.

A great point—I have to confess that here my my familiarity with the place name overrode any consciousness of just how strange this is.

David T. also wrote:

I would have a hard time saying Loss Gaddis without shuddering and would probably avoid doing so.

Ha! Well, I’d caution you against visiting San Jose, Illinois—where the pronunciation seems to be “Sand Joes.”

Wikipedia has an entertaining list of place names that have counterintuitive pronunciations—it’s here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_na … nciations. It starts with British names, and then there’s a separate list of American ones. It has most of the oddities I’m familiar with—except Lead (“Leed”), South Dakota. Lead is right next to Deadwood, and I feel consistency demands that they should pronounce the latter town’s name as “Deedwood.”

[Edit: my Wikipedia link doesn’t seem to be working for some reason. But you can just search for “List of names in English with counterintuitive pronunciations” and get the list that way.]

Last edited by patschwieterman (2010-06-07 02:41:49)

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#14 2010-06-08 11:28:59

kem
Eggcornista
From: Victoria, BC
Registered: 2007-08-28
Posts: 2872

Re: "moreways" for "mores"

Martin van Buren is supposed to have learned English as a second language—his native tongue was Dutch. Since there’s no way “van byoor-in” is the Dutch pronunciation of his name, I’m going with him.

Good guess. Perhaps there are two minor presidents with name pronunciation problems.

The president I was thinking of was Franklin Pierce, who pronounced his last name “purse.” I became aware of this oddity in the 1970s, when I was studying philosophy. Scholars were just discovering the nineteenth-century pragmatist Charles Sanders Peirce. Those in the know pronounced his last name “purse,” as he did.

“Pierce” and “Peirce” appear to be alternate spellings of the same name (cf. “Reid/Ried,” “Keith/Kieth”), so they should be pronounced the same way. In the nineteenth century both were commonly pronounced “purse.” Note that “Pierce” as a name is probably related to “Percy,” which has retained the “ur” sound. In the twentieth century, influences from the sound of the verb “pierce” (which has its own checkered pronunciation history) probably drew the pronunciation of the name to “peerce.”

The OED entry for C. S. Peirce, by the way, gives the wrong pronunciation for his surname.

Chances are that the vintage Pierce-Arrow automobile was originally the “purse-ehr-oh,” since the Arrow was a car built and sold by the nineteenth-century inventor George N. Pierce. I’ve never seen any documentation on this. But, as I mentioned above, the social rules for the pronunciation of thing names and people names are different. If everyone says “peerce-ehr-oh,” then that’s what it is. In the case of the car, semantics may have played a role in the switch (a piercing arrow).

Last edited by kem (2010-06-08 11:37:16)


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